Question:
Did Jesus justify the consumption of alcohol by His miracle in John 2?
Answer:
John 2:1-11 records the first miracle of Jesus at the wedding feast in Cana of Galilee. This miracle is one of the more well-known miracles. Unfortunately, it is not well-known for its real purpose—as a sign pointing to belief in Jesus as the Son of God (John 20:30-31). Rather, it is better-known as a passage used to justify drinking intoxicating drinks or alcohol.
Several mistakes and problems are inherent in the position that Jesus was providing intoxicating drinks at this feast.
The first mistake is to assume. Some automatically assume that the common practice, at least for some, of drinking alcohol at wedding parties was the same at the time of Jesus and in His culture. This displays an ethnocentric attitude toward the culture and customs in which this event took place. The fact that people drink alcohol at some wedding parties does not require it at all weddings!
Many also assume that the term “wine” always refers to a fermented, intoxicating liquor. While it may imply such in modern language, was it used in such a way in the original, Greek language? “Wine” is translated from the Greek word “OINOS.” Scholars claim the word “OINOS” in Greek (New Testament) corresponds directly to the word “YAYIN” used in Hebrew (Old Testament). In Latin, it is translated “VINUM” and in English it is translated “wine.”
William Patton states in his book Bible Wines that all these words are “generic words, they designate the juice of the grape in all its stages” (p. 52). Thus, the “oinos” of John 2 can refer to either unfermented, non-alcoholic juice or fermented wine. We may use the term “milk” similarly. It may refer to cow’s, goat’s, soy or breast milk, etc. It is a generic word and can be used broadly just like “wine” in Bible language.
So, how do we determine if this was fermented or unfermented wine? This question leads to our second mistake. Most people ignore the context of this passage. Notice Jesus fills up “six waterpots” that hold “twenty to thirty gallons apiece” and changes them to wine (Jn. 2:6). This means he supplied 120-180 gallons of wine!
Would the same Jesus who condemned drunkenness, along with His apostles, encourage it here? This would be an indictment against the character of the sinless Jesus and makes Him a hypocrite. The interpretation of Scripture must be in harmony with the character of Jesus and other teachings or else it is mistaken.
The context helps us determine the real nature of
this miracle—turning water into grape juice, also called “wine.” Do not
allow prejudice to hinder proper Biblical interpretation. Please refrain
from using the Lord to justify the sin of drinking intoxicating drinks.
January 2007